Mr Carcharodon
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Although a courtroom is the last vestige of the divine right of kings a judge would find it difficult to enforce such an order, the legal foundation of such a prohibition does not exist.
Of course it does, in the same way people are denied access to any piece of technology, or realluy anything, that they used to commit crimes as terms of probation.
People are routinely prohibited from using/owning computers, alcohol, and even non-tangible things like airlines, and professional licenses.
There are divers who have been given terms of probation that include not owning or using scuba equipment as part of being found negligently responsible for the deaths of divers deemed to have been under their care. Unfortunately, I know several of these people.
The terms of the civil suits usually prevent disclosing terms of their settlements, and probations/paroles, though, so there is often not a lot of publicity about them. And the structured settlements on one side, and probation terms on the other, are generally very effective at keeping everyone's mouth tightly shut, so unless on works at a dive shop and is given specific information by parole/probation officers to help prevent the terms of probation/parole from being violated, one would not hear about these things.
From my understanding, Frank Lorenzo, the former chairman of Texas Air, was prohibited by a judge from ever owning airlines again after the Eastern Airline debacle. Several prominent members of Wall Street have also been banned from working in the securities industry. Granted while these types of restrictions are not the norm, they do seem to be within the judges power to enforce.
First, I do believe a judge could actually prohibit a person from ever diving again.
No, because violations of parole are non-jurisdicitonal. If a directed sentence says a person cannot X, then it does not matter if they do X somewhere else, the violation of the conditions of parole (to refrain from doing X) are the offense in the original jurisdiction regardless of where the violation occurs. The crime is not doing X, it is the violation of the conditions of parole. The crime is not in doing X. It is in violating the conditions of parole.I would think this would only apply to the region under that court's jurisdiction. So, if a court in Nebraska, just to pick a state at random, tells me I can't dive, or even if a circuit court with a broader jurisdiction (a number of states, assuming a fairly high court? I'm not up on legal matters) forbade me to dive, I'm thinking I could still take dive trips to Bonaire, etc..., no problem. Richard.
No, because violations of parole are non-jurisdicitonal. If a directed sentence says a person cannot X, then it does not matter if they do X somewhere else, the violation of the conditions of parole (to refrain from doing X) are an offense in the original jurisdiction regardless of where the violation occurs. The crime is not doing X, it is the violation of the condition of parole. The crime is not in doing X. It is in violating the conditions of parole. It's how sex offenders are required to report their whereabouts even if they are well outside of the jurisdiction of the offense that resulted in the conditions of their parole. Edarem - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia Notice how the violations of the terms of parole in one jurisdiction followed the person.