Just finished reading all the other posts...
...Clearly, Carroll already assumed evolution to have occurred as he stated the gene duplication occured 100 million years ago and was followed up by subsequent mutation. And again, this was obviously not observed.
However, direct observation is only one tool in the scientists toolbox. Indirect evidence is equally powerful, if gathered and analyzed properly.
Take DNA identification - in most cases no one actually see's a murderer/rapist/criminal commit the crime, and yet the presence of their DNA is considered strong proof they were involved.
The same holds true for science; indirect evidence is important. Take Carroll's example. He had two genes with a high degree of sequence homology, a shared 3D protein structure, and similar biochemistry. The pattern of inheritance generated by evolution is well established via direct observation (nested hierarchy is the only pattern evolution can form). The mutation rates and selection rates of wild yeast have also been measured. And lastly, there are stats, which can be used to sort out probabilities. So, given those known and directly measured facts, you can then analyze the yeast genes in detail. You come up with a few options:
1) The genes have a completely separate origin, and are unaltered from their original form (i.e. what creationists would argue)
2) The genes have a completely separate origin, and arose de novo at some time in the past
3) The yeast genes evolved from a common ancestor gene some time in the past
4) The gene was transfered, via horizontal gene transfer, from another organism at a more recent time in the past
Those are essentially the three real options (with #1 being the "creationist" option). So now we apply the proven, directly observed data to our options, and assign probabilities.
1) This option is nearly impossible, as the proven mutation rates of yeast dictate that several mutations would have occurred in these genes over the known history of yeast.
2) This option is even more improbable as #1, as the probability of assembling two genes, via convergence, with such a degree of similarity is nearly impossible; even over multi-billion year timescales.
3) This option is the most probable, as it only requires alteration of a pre-existing gene. Given the known mutation rate of yeast, the pattern of inheritance, and the degree of divergence between the two genes we can estimate when this happened.
4) This is unlikely, but still possible. The degree of homology, and lack of genes with high homology in other species, would argue against this option.
So based on the above, we know that options 1 and 2 have exremely low probablilities (i.e. 10
-200%), making them all but impossible. #3 is most likely (>99%) and #4 is a minor possibility (<1%). So, based on real world measurements and direct observations, we're able to determine what happened.
Ph.D.s and arguments from authorite...Some on this thread have appealed to what is called an argument from authority.
You mean like the ones who called upon Gentry's expertise...
And while an argument from authority, on its own, isn't a valid argument, showing that data comes from an expert lends weight to those facts.
Mutations harmful?...Because of the redundancy of the genetic code (information, by the way) in its ability to form amino acids (slightly different codons produce the same amino acid), most mutations are benign...granted
You need to go back and read those papers again. While there is some redundancy in the genetic code, statistically speaking any mutation in the protein coding region of a gene will most likely modify an amino acid, or result in a termination codon (the chance of mutating, to the same amino acid, is only 2.7%). In fact, if you were to bother reading those papers I cited, you'd have seen that they only quantified protein-coding region mutations if that mutation led to a change in the protein.
At the end of the day, most mutations are neutral for several reasons:
1) All living organisms have chaperon proteins, who's job is to "help" proteins fold properly. Meaning that most mutations that damage a proteins structure don't do anything, as our body "forces" the protein into the right conformation. Quite interestingly, in periods of stress these chaperons are down-regulated, allowing many of the previously "hidden" mutations to be expressed.
2) Proteins only take on a limited number of structures - helicies, beta-sheets, leucine-zippers, etc. Most single amino-acid mutations are not sufficient to affect these structures greatly.
3) In most proteins, the number of critical amino acids - that is the amino acids 100% required for function, is quite low. In most cases, you're talking less than 20 amino acids in proteins usually 300-800 amino acids in size.
4) In us lucky diploid organisms, we have two copies of each gene (with the exception of men, who get one copy of the X and Y), meaning that unless you get a rare dominant mutation, chances are you'll be OK. Of course, this doesn't apply to 99.99999% of life out there...
However, even talk.origins claims that of the mutations that have an effect, most are harmful.
You are lieing:
Are Mutations Harmful?
To quote:
Q: Doesn't evolution depend on mutations and aren't most mutations harmful?
A: No. Most mutations are neither harmful nor helpful.
That's the short answer. The long answer is that mutations can be neutral (neither helpful nor harmful), strictly harmful, strictly helpful, or (and this is important) whether they are harmful or helpful depends on the environment. Most mutations are either neutral or their effect depends on the environment. Let's look at an example of a mutation which may be harmful or helpful, depending upon circumstances.
Many mutations that cause effects are typically known by the diseases/disorders they produce.
Which is why most of the categorized mutations are harmful -neutral and good ones are impossible to detect.
And yes, resistance in bacteria has been at the consequence of a decrease in functionality somewhere else.
Only in some cases. But, of course, you ignored the citations I provided which showed example where this did not occur.
The Miller experiment...It is being taught in all high school biology textbooks I have reviewed over the last 12 years as well as the introductory college texts that I have reviewed. All the Campbell, Reece, and Mitchell college level texts teach Miller.
I have Campbell in front of me. They mention miller, say its an "early attempt to understand abiogenesis", and then go onto describe some more recient stuff.
So where were they wrong?
Physics laws...Cutnell/Johnson and Giancoli Physics texts still teach Newton's laws in their first few chapters as well.
Which is fine for high school, I guess. Relativity isn't exactly easy to understand - I was taught it years ago, and I'll be damned if I get the whole thing. As for QED - forget about it. May as well be greek for what I can make of it...
Creation model...Obviously it would take a lot more time than any of us have, but let me focus on just one aspect that does not involve abiogenesis or the creation of life. Others can chime in and tell me if I have this one right...creationists would claim that direct observation has lent support to the Biblical account of reproduction of the kinds.
"Kinds" are a creationist creation, and are not a scientific principal in any way, shape or form. As it stands, its so poorly defined as to make it useless for any detailed discussion of biology. After all, it's a sliding scale. "Kind" used to be "species", until the creationists caught on that scientists have been observing new species for for over 100 years now. Then it was equivelent to genus, but now that there is growing claims of new genuses being formed, I'm sure it'll change again - at least once us scientists come up with a clear definition of "genus".
In other words, it is possible that 2 dog-kind animals (walking off the ark, of course) with maximal heterozygosity of genes could produce quite a huge amount of variation in a relatively short amount of time. Mutations would occur,
I thought all mutations were lethal - that was your claim until, well, one paragraph ago
of course, but any natural selection or speciation would occur within the kind. Does that sum up that aspect of the creation model?
Not really. Because every time we ask for one, we get a different answer.
But lets run with it anyways, just as an example of why it isn't scientifically acceptable. Just as a quick reminder, a scientific thoery is:
1) Based on all pre-existing data,
2) Can be used to design experiments,
3) Predicts the results of the experiments in #3, and
4) Is falsifiable
Let start with #1:
- There is zero evidence for a biblical-style flood
- There is zero evidence for a young earth - 100,000, 10,000, 6,000 years old, or whatever number you prefer
- Given the known mutation and selection rates, there is not enough time for just two members of a "kind" to make the species we see today; even assuming a 100,000 year old earth.
- Its well established that just two members of the same species cannot produce a viable population, as inbreeding will remove genetic variability far faster than mutation can create it
So, your theory is not based on known evidence.
Point #2:
- Well, you can design experiments to test it - i.e. radiodate the earth, look for evidence of mass-floods, etc. But those have already been done, and as pointed out above, eliminate your thoery
Point #3:
- Given points #1 and #2, its self-evident that the theory is not predictive; in fact, the results of the experiments and observations are in direct opposition to the theory
Point #4:
- Its falsifiable; afterall, its already falsified.
So you've managed better than most, but the thoery is proven to be wrong by the data already in hand...
Bryan